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NEW QUESTION # 91
Which of the following are the primary functions of configuration management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. It removes the risk event entirely by adding additional steps to avoid the event.
- B. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system.
- C. It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing.
- D. It reduces the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The primary functions of configuration management are as follows: It ensures that the change is implemented in a sequential manner through formalized testing. It ensures that the user base is informed of the future change. It analyzes the effect of the change that is implemented on the system. It reduces the negative impact that the change might have had on the computing services and resources. AnswerA is incorrect. It is not one of the primary functions of configuration management. It is the function of risk avoidance.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following processes identifies the threats that can impact the business continuity of operations?
- A. Business impact analysis
- B. Requirement analysis
- C. Function analysis
- D. Risk analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
A business impact analysis (BIA) is a crisis management and business impact analysis technique that identifies those threats that can impact the business continuity of operations. Such threats can be either natural or man-made. The BIA team should have a clear understanding of the organization, key business processes, and IT resources for assessing the risks associated with continuity. In the BIA team, there should be senior management, IT personnel, and end users to identify all resources that are to be used during normal operations. Answer B is incorrect. Risk analysis is the science of risks and their probability and evaluation in a business or a process. It is an important factor in security enhancement and prevention in a system. Risk analysis should be performed as part of the risk management process for each project. The outcome of the risk analysis would be the creation or review of the risk register to identify and quantify risk elements to the project and their potential impact. Answer A is incorrect. The functional analysis process is used for converting system requirements into a comprehensive function standard. Verification is the result of the functional analysis process, in which the fundamentals of a system level functional architecture are defined adequately to allow for synthesis in the design phase. The functional analysis breaks down the higher-level functions into the lower level functions. Answer D is incorrect. Requirements analysis encompasses the tasks that go into determining the needs or conditions to meet for a new or altered product, taking account of the possibly conflicting requirements of the various stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 93
Samantha works as an Ethical Hacker for we-are-secure Inc. She wants to test the security of the we-are- secure server for DoS attacks. She sends large number of ICMP ECHO packets to the target computer.
Which of the following DoS attacking techniques will she use to accomplish the task?
- A. Teardrop attack
- B. Land attack
- C. Smurf dos attack
- D. Ping flood attack
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: According to the scenario, Samantha is using the ping flood attack. In a ping flood attack, an attacker sends a large number of ICMP packets to the target computer using the ping command, i.e., ping - f target_IP_address. When the target computer receives these packets in large quantities, it does not respond and hangs. However, for such an attack to take place, the attacker must have sufficient Internet bandwidth, because if the target responds with an "ECHO reply ICMP packet" message, the attacker must have both the incoming and outgoing bandwidths available for communication. AnswerA is incorrect. In a smurf DoS attack, an attacker sends a large amount of ICMP echo request traffic to the IP broadcast addresses. These ICMP requests have a spoofed source address of the intended victim. If the routing device delivering traffic to those broadcast addresses delivers the IP broadcast to all the hosts, most of the IP addresses send an ECHO reply message. However, on a multi- access broadcast network, hundreds of computers might reply to each packet when the target network is overwhelmed by all the messages sent simultaneously. Due to this, the network becomes unable to provide services to all the messages and crashes. Answer D is incorrect. In a teardrop attack, a series of data packets are sent to the target computer with overlapping offset field values. As a result, the target computer is unable to reassemble these packets and is forced to crash, hang, or reboot. Answer: B is incorrect. In a land attack, the attacker sends a spoofed TCP SYN packet in which the IP address of the target is filled in both the source and destination fields. On receiving the spoofed packet, the target system becomes confused and goes into a frozen state. Now-a-days, antivirus can easily detect such an attack.
NEW QUESTION # 94
You work as the Senior Project manager in Dotcoiss Inc. Your company has started a software project using configuration management and has completed 70% of it. You need to ensure that the network infrastructure devices and networking standards used in this project are installed in accordance with the requirements of its detailed project design documentation. Which of the following procedures will you employ to accomplish the task?
- A. Configuration identification
- B. Physical configuration audit
- C. Functional configuration audit
- D. Configuration control
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Physical Configuration Audit (PCA) is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. The purpose of the software PCA is to ensure that the design and reference documentation is consistent with the as-built software product. PCA checks and matches the really implemented layout with the documented layout. AnswerC is incorrect. Functional Configuration Audit or FCA is one of the practices used in Software Configuration Management for Software Configuration Auditing. FCA occurs either at delivery or at the moment of effecting the change. A Functional Configuration Audit ensures that functional and performance attributes of a configuration item are achieved. Answer B is incorrect. Configuration control is a procedure of the Configuration management. Configuration control is a set of processes and approval stages required to change a configuration item's attributes and to re-baseline them. It supports the change of the functional and physical attributes of software at various points in time, and performs systematic control of changes to the identified attributes. Answer: A is incorrect. Configuration identification is the process of identifying the attributes that define every aspect of a configuration item. A configuration item is a product (hardware and/ or software) that has an end-user purpose. These attributes are recorded in configuration documentation and baselined. Baselining an attribute forces formal configuration change control processes to be effected in the event that these attributes are changed.
NEW QUESTION # 95
Shoulder surfing is a type of in-person attack in which the attacker gathers information about the premises of an organization. This attack is often performed by looking surreptitiously at the keyboard of an employee's computer while he is typing in his password at any access point such as a terminal/Web site. Which of the following is violated in a shoulder surfing attack?
- A. Integrity
- B. Authenticity
- C. Confidentiality
- D. Availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Confidentiality is violated in a shoulder surfing attack. The CIA triad provides the following three tenets for which security practices are measured: Confidentiality: It is the property of preventing disclosure of information to unauthorized individuals or systems. Breaches of confidentiality take many forms. Permitting someone to look over your shoulder at your computer screen while you have confidential data displayed on it could be a breach of confidentiality. If a laptop computer containing sensitive information about a company's employees is stolen or sold, it could result in a breach of confidentiality. Integrity: It means that data cannot be modified without authorization. Integrity is violated when an employee accidentally or with malicious intent deletes important data files, when a computer virus infects a computer, when an employee is able to modify his own salary in a payroll database, when an unauthorized user vandalizes a web site, when someone is able to cast a very large number of votes in an online poll, and so on. Availability: It means that data must be available at every time when it is needed. Answer D is incorrect. Authenticity is not a tenet of the CIA triad.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following are the principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on-self-test)?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. It delegates control to other BIOS, if it is required.
- B. It provides a user interface for system's configuration.
- C. It discovers size and verifies system memory.
- D. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices.
- E. It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself.
- F. It interrupts the execution of all running programs.
Answer: A,B,C,D,E
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The principle duties performed by the BIOS during POST (power-on-self-test) are as follows:
It verifies the integrity of the BIOS code itself. It discovers size and verifies system memory. It discovers, initializes, and catalogs all system hardware. It delegates control to other BIOS if it is required. It provides a user interface for system's configuration. It identifies, organizes, and selects boot devices. It executes the bootstrap program. AnswerF is incorrect. The BIOS does not interrupt the execution of all running programs.
NEW QUESTION # 97
Audit trail or audit log is a chronological sequence of audit records, each of which contains evidence directly pertaining to and resulting from the execution of a business process or system function. Under which of the following controls does audit control come?
- A. Protective controls
- B. Preventive controls
- C. Detective controls
- D. Reactive controls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Audit trail or audit log comes under detective controls. Detective controls are the audit controls that are not needed to be restricted. Any control that performs a monitoring activity can likely be defined as a Detective Control. For example, it is possible that mistakes, either intentional or unintentional, can be made. Therefore, an additional Protective control is that these companies must have their financial results audited by an independent Certified Public Accountant. The role of this accountant is to act as an auditor. In fact, any auditor acts as a Detective control. If the organization in question has not properly followed the rules, a diligent auditor should be able to detect the deficiency which indicates that some control somewhere has failed. AnswerA is incorrect. Reactive or corrective controls typically work in response to a detective control, responding in such a way as to alert or otherwise correct an unacceptable condition. Using the example of account rules, either the internal Audit Committee or the SEC itself, based on the report generated by the external auditor, will take some corrective action. In this way, they are acting as a Corrective or Reactive control. AnswerC and D are incorrect. Protective or preventative controls serve to proactively define and possibly enforce acceptable behaviors. As an example, a set of common accounting rules are defined and must be followed by any publicly traded company. Each quarter, any particular company must publicly state its current financial standing and accounting as reflected by an application of these rules. These accounting rules and the SEC requirements serve as protective or preventative controls.
NEW QUESTION # 98
Which of the following DoD directives is referred to as the Defense Automation Resources Management Manual?
- A. DoD 8910.1
- B. DoD 7950.1-M
- C. DoDD 8000.1
- D. DoD 5200.22-M
- E. DoD 5200.1-R
Answer: B
Explanation:
The various DoD directives are as follows:
DoD 5200.1-R: This DoD directive refers to the 'Information Security Program Regulation'. DoD
5200.22-M: This DoD directive refers the 'National Industrial Security Program Operating Manual'.
DoD 7950.1-M: This DoD directive refers to the 'Defense Automation Resources Management
Manual'. DoDD 8000.1: This DoD directive refers to the 'Defense Information Management (IM)
Program'. DoD 8910.1: This DoD directive refers to the 'Management and Control of Information
Requirements'.
NEW QUESTION # 99
Joseph works as a Software Developer for WebTech Inc. He wants to protect the algorithms and the techniques of programming that he uses in developing an application. Which of the following laws are used to protect a part of software?
- A. Trademark laws
- B. Copyright laws
- C. Patent laws
- D. Code Security law
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Patent laws are used to protect the duplication of software. Software patents cover the algorithms and techniques that are used in creating the software. It does not cover the entire program of the software. Patents give the author the right to make and sell his product. The time of the patent of a product is limited though, i.e., the author of the product has the right to use the patent for only a specific length of time. Answer: D is incorrect. Copyright laws protect original works or creations of authorship including literary, dramatic, musical, artistic, and certain other intellectual works.
NEW QUESTION # 100
You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. In the organization, Syslog is used for computer system management and security auditing, as well as for generalized informational, analysis, and debugging messages. You want to prevent a denial of service (DoS) for the Syslog server and the loss of Syslog messages from other sources. What will you do to accomplish the task?
- A. Use a different message format other than Syslog in order to accept data.
- B. Limit the number of Syslog messages or TCP connections from a specific source for a certain time period.
- C. Enable the storage of log entries in both traditional Syslog files and a database.
- D. Encrypt rotated log files automatically using third-party or OS mechanisms.
Answer: B
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should limit the number of Syslog messages or TCP connections from a specific source for a certain time period. This will prevent a denial of service (DoS) for the Syslog server and the loss of Syslog messages from other sources. Answer D is incorrect. You can encrypt rotated log files automatically using third-party or OS mechanisms to protect data confidentiality. Answer A is incorrect. You can use a different message format other than Syslog in order to accept data for aggregating data from hosts that do not support Syslog. Answer B is incorrect. You can enable the storage of log entries in both traditional Syslog files and a database for creating a database storage for logs.
NEW QUESTION # 101
Harry is the project manager of the MMQ Construction Project. In this project, Harry has identified a supplier who can create stained glass windows for 1,000 window units in the construction project. The supplier is an artist who works by himself, but creates windows for several companies throughout the United States. Management reviews the proposal to use this supplier and while they agree that the supplier is talented, they do not think the artist can fulfill the 1,000 window units in time for the project's deadline. Management asked Harry to find a supplier who can fulfill the completion of the windows by the needed date in the schedule. What risk response has management asked Harry to implement?
- A. Transference
- B. Mitigation
- C. Avoidance
- D. Acceptance
Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of mitigation. By changing to a more reliable supplier, Harry is reducing the probability the supplier will be late. It's still possible that the vendor may not be able to deliver the stained glass windows, but the more reputable supplier reduces the probability of the lateness. Mitigation is a risk response planning technique associated with threats that seeks to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk to below an acceptable threshold. Risk mitigation involves taking early action to reduce the probability and impact of a risk occurring on the project. Adopting less complex processes, conducting more tests, or choosing a more stable supplier are examples of mitigation actions. Answer A is incorrect. Transference is when the risk is transferred to a third party, usually for a fee. While this question does include a contractual relationship, the risk is the lateness of the windows. Transference focuses on transferring the risk to a third party to manage the risk event. In this instance, the management of the risk is owned by a third party; the third party actually creates the risk event because of the possibility of the lateness of the windows. Answer B is incorrect. Avoidance changes the project plan to avoid the risk. If the project manager and management changed the window-type to a standard window in the project requirements, then this would be avoidance. Risk avoidance is a technique used for threats. It creates changes to the project management plan that are meant to either eliminate the risk completely or to protect the project objectives from its impact. Risk avoidance removes the risk event entirely either by adding additional steps to avoid the event or reducing the project scope requirements. It may seem the answer to all possible risks, but avoiding risks also means losing out on the potential gains that accepting (retaining) the risk might have allowed. Answer D is incorrect. Acceptance accepts the risk that the windows could be late and offers no response.
NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
- A. Risk Management
- B. Information Assurance (IA)
- C. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
- D. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Certification and accreditation (C&A) is a set of processes that culminate in an agreement between key players that a system in its current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls. Certification and Accreditation (C&A or CnA) is a process for implementing information security. It is a systematic procedure for evaluating, describing, testing, and authorizing systems prior to or after a system is in operation. The C&A process is used extensively in the U.S. Federal Government. Some C&A processes include FISMA, NIACAP, DIACAP, and DCID 6/3. Certification is a comprehensive assessment of the management, operational, and technical security controls in an information system, made in support of security accreditation, to determine the extent to which the controls are implemented correctly, operating as intended, and producing the desired outcome with respect to meeting the security requirements for the system. Accreditation is the official management decision given by a senior agency official to authorize operation of an information system and to explicitly accept the risk to agency operations (including mission, functions, image, or reputation), agency assets, or individuals, based on the implementation of an agreed- upon set of security controls. Answer: D is incorrect. Risk management is a set of processes that ensures a risk-based approach is used to determine adequate, cost- effective security for a system. Answer: A is incorrect. Information assurance (IA) is the process of organizing and monitoring information-related risks.
It ensures that only the approved users have access to the approved information at the approved time. IA practitioners seek to protect and defend information and information systems by ensuring confidentiality, integrity, authentication, availability, and non-repudiation. These objectives are applicable whether the information is in storage, processing, or transit, and whether threatened by an attack. Answer: B is incorrect. ISSE is a set of processes and solutions used during all phases of a system's life cycle to meet the system's information protection needs.
NEW QUESTION # 103
Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?
- A. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.
- B. Project risk management happens at every milestone.
- C. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.
- D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk management is an ongoing project activity. It should be an agenda item at every project status meeting. AnswerA is incorrect. Milestones are good times to do reviews, but risk management should happen frequently. Answer: C is incorrect. This answer would only be correct if the project has a status meeting just once per month in the project. Answer: B is incorrect. Risk management happens throughout the project as does project planning.
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity?
- A. RCO
- B. RPO
- C. RTA
- D. RTO
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Recovery Time Objective (RTO) is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must be restored after a disaster or disruption in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in business continuity. It includes the time for trying to fix the problem without a recovery, the recovery itself, tests and the communication to the users. Decision time for user representative is not included. The business continuity timeline usually runs parallel with an incident management timeline and may start at the same, or different, points. In accepted business continuity planning methodology, the RTO is established during the Business Impact Analysis (BIA) by the owner of a process (usually in conjunction with the Business Continuity planner). The RTOs are then presented to senior management for acceptance. The RTO attaches to the business process and not the resources required to support the process. Answer B is incorrect. The Recovery Time Actual (RTA) is established during an exercise, actual event, or predetermined based on recovery methodology the technology support team develops. This is the time frame the technology support takes to deliver the recovered infrastructure to the business. Answer D is incorrect. The Recovery Consistency Objective (RCO) is used in Business Continuity Planning in addition to Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO). It applies data consistency objectives to Continuous Data Protection services. Answer C is incorrect. The Recovery Point Objective (RPO) describes the acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It is the point in time to which data must be recovered as defined by the organization. The RPO is generally a definition of what an organization determines is an "acceptable loss" in a disaster situation. If the RPO of a company is 2 hours and the time it takes to get the data back into production is 5 hours, the RPO is still 2 hours. Based on this RPO the data must be restored to within 2 hours of the disaster.
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
- A. Dumpster diving
- B. Sniffing
- C. Social engineering
- D. Demon dialing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The demon dialing technique automatically tests every phone line in an exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network. Information about these modems can then be used to attempt external unauthorized access. Answer: B is incorrect. In sniffing, a protocol analyzer is used to capture data packets that are later decoded to collect information such as passwords or infrastructure configurations. Answer: D is incorrect. Dumpster diving technique is used for searching paper disposal areas for unshredded or otherwise improperly disposed-of reports. Answer: C is incorrect. Social engineering is the most commonly used technique of all, getting information (like passwords) just by asking for them.
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website?
- A. Side channel attack
- B. Cross-Site Scripting
- C. Injection flaw
- D. Cross-Site Request Forgery
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
CSRF (Cross-Site Request Forgery) is a malicious exploit of a website, whereby unauthorized commands are transmitted from a user trusted by the website. It is also known as a one-click attack or session riding.
CSRF occurs when a user is tricked by an attacker into activating a request in order to perform some unauthorized action. It increases data loss and malicious code execution. AnswerA is incorrect. Cross- site scripting (XSS) is a type of computer security vulnerability typically found in web applications which enable malicious attackers to inject client-side script into web pages viewed by other users. An exploited cross-site scripting vulnerability can be used by attackers to bypass access controls, such as the same origin policy. Cross-site scripting carried out on websites were roughly 80% of all security vulnerabilities documented by Symantec as of 2007. Their impact may range from a petty nuisance to a significant security risk, depending on the sensitivity of the data handled by the vulnerable site, and the nature of any security mitigations implemented by the site owner. Answer: C is incorrect. A side channel attack is based on information gained from the physical implementation of a cryptosystem, rather than brute force or theoretical weaknesses in the algorithms (compare cryptanalysis). For example, timing information, power consumption, electromagnetic leaks or even sound can provide an extra source of information which can be exploited to break the system. Many side- channel attacks require considerable technical knowledge of the internal operation of the system on which the cryptography is implemented. Answer: B is incorrect.
Injection flaws are the vulnerabilities where a foreign agent illegally uses a sub-system. They are the vulnerability holes that can be used to attack a database of Web applications. It is the most common technique of attacking a database. Injection occurs when user-supplied data is sent to an interpreter as part of a command or query. The attacker's hostile data tricks the interpreter into executing involuntary commands or changing data. Injection flaws include XSS (HTML Injection) and SQL Injection.
NEW QUESTION # 107
Which of the following specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping?
- A. Access Management
- B. Security constraint
- C. Explanation:
Security constraint is a type of declarative security, which specifies the protection of web content. It also specifies access privileges to a collection of resources by using the URL mapping. A deployment descriptor is used to define the security constraint. Security constraint includes the following elements: Web resource collection Authorization constraint User data constraint - D. Code Access Security
- E. Configuration Management
Answer: B
Explanation:
is incorrect. Code Access Security (CAS), in the Microsoft .NET framework, is Microsoft's solution to prevent untrusted code from performing privileged actions. When the CLR (common language runtime) loads an assembly it will obtain evidence for the assembly and use this to identify the code group that the assembly belongs to. A code group contains a permission set (one or more permissions). Code that performs a privileged action will perform a code access demand, which will cause the CLR to walk up the call stack and examine the permission set granted to the assembly of each method in the call stack. The code groups and permission sets are determined by the administrator of the machine who defines the security policy. Answer D is incorrect. Access Management is used to grant authorized users the right to use a service, while preventing access to non- authorized users. The Access Management process essentially executes policies defined in IT Security Management. It is sometimes also referred to as Rights Management or Identity Management. It is part of Service Operation and the owner of Access Management is the Access Manager. Access Management is added as a new process to ITIL V3. The sub-processes of Access Management are as follows: Maintain Catalogue of User Roles and Access Profiles Manage User Access Requests Answer C is incorrect. Configuration Management (CM) is an Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) IT Service Management (ITSM) process. It tracks all of the individual Configuration Items (CI) in an IT system, which may be as simple as a single server, or as complex as the entire IT department. In large organizations a configuration manager may be appointed to oversee and manage the CM process.
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and any applications that are accessing the implementation?
- A. Access control
- B. OTA provisioning
- C. Compliance rule
- D. OS fingerprinting
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: The Compliance rule specifies the behaviors of the DRM implementation and any applications that are accessing the implementation. The compliance rule specifies the following elements: Definition of specific license rights Device requirements Revocation of license path or penalties when the implementation is not robust enough or noncompliant AnswerB is incorrect. Over- the- air provisioning is a mechanism to deploy MIDlet suites over a network. It is a method of distributing MIDlet suites. MIDlet suite providers install their MIDlet suites on Web servers and provide a hypertext link for downloading. A user can use this link to download the MIDlet suite either through the Internet microbrowser or through WAP on his device. AnswerC is incorrect. An access control is a system, which enables an authority to control access to areas and resources in a given physical facility, or computer-based information system.
Access control system, within the field of physical security, is generally seen as the second layer in the security of a physical structure. It refers to all mechanisms that control visibility of screens, views, and data within Siebel Business Applications. AnswerA is incorrect. OS fingerprinting is a process in which an external host sends special traffic on the external network interface of a computer to determine the computer's operating system. It is one of the primary steps taken by hackers in preparing an attack.
NEW QUESTION # 109
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