[Nov-2025] 100% Actual CPC dumps Q&As with Explanations Verified & Correct Answers
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NEW QUESTION # 100
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?
- A. 10005, 10006 x 2
- B. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
- C. 10006 x 3
- D. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 101
Which one of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the code for diabetes is never sequenced first?
- A. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes
- B. If the patient is being treated for type 2 diabetes
- C. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction
- D. If the patient has hyperglycemia that Is not responding to medication
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 102
A patient presents to the surgical suite for a planned sterilization procedure via a bilateral excisional vasectomy.
What is the correct CPTcode and diagnosis code for the service?
- A. 55250, Z30.012
- B. 55250, Z30.2
- C. 55250-50, Z30.012
- D. 55250-50, Z30.2
Answer: B
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a bilateral excisional vasectomy for sterilization.
CPTCode 55250 represents a bilateral vasectomy with excision, which includes postoperative care. The code already implies a bilateral procedure, so it is not necessary to add the -50 modifier for bilateral designation.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code Z30.2 is used for encounter for sterilization and is the correct code to report for a planned sterilization procedure such as a vasectomy.
Code Z30.012 is specific to encounter for sterilization of a female patient, which does not apply in this male patient scenario.
3. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
55250-50 (in options C and D) is unnecessary because the CPTcode 55250 inherently covers a bilateral vasectomy, and applying the -50 modifier is redundant.
Z30.012 (options B and D) is incorrect as it pertains to female sterilization procedures, not male.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, 55250 is reported without a bilateral modifier, as the procedure inherently covers both sides. Additionally, Z30.2 is the correct ICD-10-CM code for male sterilization procedures.
Thus, the correct answer based on CPTand ICD-10-CM guidelines is A. 55250, Z30.2.
NEW QUESTION # 103
The evisceration of ocular contents was performed using a surgical microscope for enhanced visualization.
The procedure was performed on the left eye and an implant was not placed in the ocular cavity.
What CPTcoding is reported?
- A. 65093-LT, 69990
- B. 65091-LT, 69990-51
- C. 65091-LT
- D. 65093-LT
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The procedure performed was an evisceration of ocular contents without the placement of an implant. The surgical microscope was used for enhanced visualization, but this does not require a separate code if the primary procedure code includes it inherently.
CPTCode 65091 is used for an evisceration of the ocular contents without implant placement. This code correctly describes the procedure performed on the left eye.
2. Modifier:
Modifier LT is added to indicate that the procedure was performed on the left eye.
3. Exclusion of Code 69990:
Code 69990 is for the use of an operating microscope, but it should not be billed separately when it is used as part of a procedure where enhanced visualization is typical or expected, such as an evisceration procedure.
According to CPTguidelines, 69990 is not separately reported when the microscope is used for visualization in procedures where its use is considered part of the standard of care.
4. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 65093 is for an evisceration with implant placement, which does not apply since no implant was used.
Options B and C incorrectly include 69990, which is not separately reportable in this scenario.
5. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC and CPTcoding guidelines, 65091 is sufficient to capture the procedure without the need to add code 69990 for the microscope.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. 65091-LT.
NEW QUESTION # 104
A patient presents with recurrent spontaneous episodes of dizziness of unclear etiology. Caloric vestibular testing is performed irrigating both ears with warm and cold water while evaluating the patient's eye movements. There is a total of three irrigations.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 92537-50
- B. 92537-50-52
- C. 92537-52
- D. 92538-50
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 105
The mediastinum is:
- A. Both the heart and lungs
- B. A small endocrine organ behind the heart
- C. A part of the lymphatic system
- D. A location in the chest, bounded by the sternum, diaphragm, and lungs
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 106
A 32-year-old is in the outpatient clinic for an esophagoscopy due to increased difficulty swallowing with his eosinophilic esophagitis. The flexible scope is inserted in the mouth and into the esophagus. Examination of the esophagus noted narrowing in the distal esophagus. Following an injection of Kenalog, a transendoscopic balloon dilation was performed in the area of stenosis. Inflation was repeated eventually reaching 18 mm in diameter. What CPTcoding is reported for this procedure?
- A. 43214, 43201
- B. 43220, 43204
- C. 43220, 43201
- D. 43220, 43200-59
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 107
The procedure is performed at an outpatient radiology department. From a left femoral access, the catheter is placed in the abdominal aorta and is then selectively placed in the celiac trunk and manipulated up into the common hepatic artery for an abdominal angiography. Dye is injected, and imaging is obtained. The provider performs the supervision and interpretation.
What CPT codes are reported?
- A. 36246, 75716-26
- B. 36246, 75741-26
- C. 36246, 75726-26
- D. 36246, 75635-26
Answer: C
Explanation:
* Procedure: Abdominal aorta catheterization and selective placement in the celiac trunk for angiography.
* CPT Codes:
* 36246: This code is for the catheter placement in the abdominal aorta.
* 75726-26: This code represents the abdominal angiography with supervision and interpretation, with the -26 modifier indicating the professional component.
* Code Selection Justification: The procedure involves the catheterization of the abdominal aorta and the specific imaging performed with supervision and interpretation.
References:
* AMA CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
* HCPCS Level II (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 108
A patient suffers a ruptured infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm requiring emergent endovascular repair. An aorto-aortic tube endograft is positioned in the aorta and a balloon dilation is performed at the proximal and distal seal zones of the endograft. The balloon angioplasty is performed for endoleak treatment.
What CPT code does the vascular surgeon use to report the procedure?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
The emergent endovascular repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm with an aorto-aortic tube endograft is coded with CPT 34702. This code includes the deployment of the endograft and the necessary balloon angioplasty for sealing the proximal and distal attachment zones.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 109
A 44-year-old female patient with chest pains had a CT of her chest that identified a mass in her left lower lung. The patient currently has ovarian cancer with metastases to the liver. The radiologist suspects the cancer has spread to her lungs. The physician performed an outpatient bronchoscopic biopsy and the pathology report documents the mass as a tumor of uncertain behavior.
What ICD-10-CM codes are reported for this patient?
- A. R91.8, C56.9, C78.7
- B. D38.1, C56.9, C78.7
- C. C78.02, C22.9, C79.82
- D. C56.9, C78.7, C78.02
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 110
Which statement regarding lesion excision is TRUE?
- A. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion, with margins, and simple (nonlayered) closure when performed
- B. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion with margins, and complex closure when performed
- C. Lesion excision codes include removal of a lesion, with margins, and intermediate closure when performed
- D. Lesion excision codes are selected by measuring the greatest clinical diameter of a lesion excluding the margins required to complete the excision
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 111
From a left femoral access, the catheter is placed within the proper hepatic artery, dye is injected, and imaging is obtained. A stenosis within this artery is identified. A percutaneous transluminal angioplasty is performed on the proper hepatic (visceral) artery in the outpatient radiology department.
What CPTcoding is reported?
- A. 36253, 75726-26-59, 37246-51
- B. 36247, 75726-26-59, 37246-51
- C. 36253, 75736-26-59, 37248-51
- D. 36247, 75736-26-59, 37248-51
Answer: D
Explanation:
1. Procedure Details and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent a catheter placement in the proper hepatic artery (a visceral artery), followed by dye injection and imaging to identify a stenosis, and finally a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of the artery.
Code 36247 is appropriate for selective catheter placement in the third-order or more selective branch of a visceral artery. Since the proper hepatic artery is a selective branch accessed from the left femoral artery, this code accurately describes the catheter placement.
Code 75736 is for angiography of a selective visceral artery following catheter placement, which matches the imaging procedure performed here.
Code 37248 describes a percutaneous transluminal angioplasty of a visceral artery, which is the therapeutic intervention performed to treat the stenosis in the proper hepatic artery.
2. Modifiers:
Modifier 26 is used with 75736 to denote the professional component of the imaging service.
Modifier 59 indicates that the imaging (75736) is a distinct procedural service, separate from the therapeutic angioplasty (37248).
Modifier 51 is applied to 37248 to indicate it was a secondary procedure in addition to the diagnostic imaging and catheter placement.
3. Exclusion of Other Options:
Code 36253 (in choices A and D) is for selective catheter placement in a different vessel and does not apply to the hepatic artery.
Code 75726 is for non-selective abdominal aortography, which does not match the specific selective imaging of the hepatic artery.
4. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, each step in an angiographic and interventional radiology procedure is coded based on the level of vessel accessed, imaging performed, and therapeutic intervention completed, which is all accurately represented by 36247, 75736-26-59, and 37248-51.
Based on CPTand AAPC coding guidelines, the correct answer is C. 36247, 75736-26-59, 37248-51.
You said:
NEW QUESTION # 112
A catheter was placed into the abdominal aorta via the right common femoral artery access. An abdominal aortography was performed. The right and left renal artery were adequately visualized. The catheter was used to selectively catheterize the right and left renal artery. Selective right and left renal angiography were then performed, demonstrating a widely patent right and left renal artery.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 36253, 75625-26
- D. 36252, 75625-26
Answer: D
Explanation:
CPT code 36252 describes selective catheter placement of the main renal artery with angiography of both kidneys, which matches the procedure of selectively catheterizing the right and left renal arteries and performing angiography. Additionally, CPT code 75625-26 is for an abdominal aortography with interpretation and report. The -26 modifier indicates that the professional component of the service was performed.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Codes 36252, 75625-26
NEW QUESTION # 113
A physician prescribes carbamazepine to treat a patient with epileptic seizures. After six months, the physician performs a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of the drug in the patient.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is used for the six month-evaluation?
- A. 80157, R56.9
- B. 80156, R56.9
- C. 80156, G40.909
- D. 80157, G40.909
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct CPT code for a therapeutic drug test to monitor the total level of carbamazepine is 80156. The ICD-10-CM code G40.909 is used for epileptic seizures, not otherwise specified, which aligns with the patient's condition being treated for seizures.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
* ICD-10-CM (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 114
A 6-French sheath and catheter is placed into the coronary artery and is advanced to the left side of the heart into the ventricle. Ventriculography is performed using power injection of contrast agent. Pressures in the left heart are obtained. The coronary arteries are also selected and imaged.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a procedure involving the placement of a 6-French sheath and catheter into the coronary artery, advancing to the left ventricle, performing ventriculography with power injection of contrast agent, obtaining pressures in the left heart, and imaging the coronary arteries, the correct CPT code is 93458. This code includes all the components of the described procedure.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 115
A patient arrives for a PEG placement. The patient requires tube feeds for nutrition but frequently pulls out the dobhoffs tube. An EGD was performed. Several attempts were made to place the PEG tube without success so the procedure was aborted. During the withdraw of the scope, a small hiatal hernia was noted in the stomach. The scope was removed the the patient transferred to recovery.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. 49450-53, K94.29, K44.9
- B. :43830-52, Z43.1
- C. 43246-53, K94.29, K44.9
- D. 43246, K94.29, Z93.1
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 116
A patient that delivered her second child vaginally has a history of having a previous cesarean delivery for the first child.
What CPTcode is reported for the delivery of the second child with antepartum care and postpartum care with the same provider?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient delivered her second child vaginally after having a previous cesarean delivery for her first child.
This scenario describes a Vaginal Birth After Cesarean (VBAC).
CPTCode 59610 is specific for a vaginal delivery after a previous cesarean delivery, including antepartum and postpartum care with the same provider, which matches this case exactly.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 59410 covers only vaginal delivery with postpartum care but does not include a history of previous cesarean delivery, so it is not appropriate for a VBAC.
Code 59400 is for routine vaginal delivery with antepartum and postpartum care but, again, does not account for a previous cesarean, so it does not apply in this VBAC scenario.
Code 59614 is for a VBAC but does not include antepartum care, making it incomplete for this scenario since the question specifies that antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care were provided by the same provider.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
AAPC and CPTguidelines indicate that 59610 should be used for a complete VBAC service that includes antepartum, delivery, and postpartum care by the same provider.
Therefore, based on CPTguidelines, the correct answer is B. 59610.
NEW QUESTION # 117
A 5-year-old is brought to the QuickCare in the ED to repair two lacerations: a 3 cm laceration on her right arm and 2 cm laceration on her nose. Her arm is repaired with a simple one-layer closure with sutures. Her nose is repaired with a simple repair using tissue adhesive, 2-cyanoacrylate.
How are the repairs reported?
- A. 0
- B. 12032, 12041-59
- C. 1
- D. 12002, 12011-59
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CPT code 12002 is used for simple repair of superficial wounds of 2.5 cm or less. This code includes the repair of both the 3 cm laceration on the right arm and the 2 cm laceration on the nose as both are simple repairs. The other options suggest more complex repairs or multiple separate procedures, which are not necessary in this scenario.References: AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 118
A patient who has colon adenocarcinoma undergoes an open partial colectomy. The surgeon removes the proximal colon and terminal ileum and reconnects the cut ends of the distal ileum and remaining colon.
What procedure and diagnosis codes are reported?
- A. 44140, C18.9
- B. 44205, C18.9
- C. 44160, C18.2
- D. 44204, C18.2
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The patient underwent an open partial colectomy involving the removal of the proximal colon and terminal ileum with reconnection of the distal ileum to the remaining colon.
CPTCode 44160 is specific for an open partial colectomy with removal of a portion of the colon and the terminal ileum with an ileocolostomy (reconnection of the ileum to the colon). This accurately describes the procedure performed.
Code 44140 is for a partial colectomy without removal of the terminal ileum, making it inappropriate in this case.
Codes 44205 and 44204 involve laparoscopic approaches for colectomy procedures, but since this procedure was open, these codes are not suitable.
2. Diagnosis and ICD-10-CM Code Selection:
ICD-10-CM Code C18.2 is for a malignant neoplasm of the ascending colon, which is specified in this case as colon adenocarcinoma.
Code C18.9 represents an unspecified malignant neoplasm of the colon, which is less specific than C18.2.
Therefore, C18.2 is the most accurate choice based on the location of the adenocarcinoma.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
Per AAPC guidelines, selecting the correct colectomy code involves identifying the specific approach (open vs. laparoscopic) and anatomical structures resected, both of which align with 44160 for this open ileocolic resection.
Thus, the correct answer, based on CPTand ICD-10-CM guidelines, is D. 44160, C18.2.
NEW QUESTION # 119 
Refer to the supplemental information when answering this question:
View MR 354859
What CPTand ICD-10-CM coding is reported?
- A. 28810-T2, L97.528, 170.262
- B. 28820-T2, 170.262, L97.528
- C. 28810-T2, 170.262, L97.528
- D. 28820-T2, L97.528, 170.262
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 120
A 47-year-old male recently injured as a passenger in a car accident sustained multiple fractures. The patient now has physical restraints due to pulling out foley catheter, IV catheters and attempted to pull out NG tube. Emergency department physician is asked to come see patient and injects 0.5 lidocaine into lumbar region of the spine. An indwelling catheter is placed into the lumbar region for continuous infusion with fluoroscopy for pain management.
What CPTis reported for the Emergency department physician?
- A. 0
- B. 62326,77003
- C. 62327,77003
- D. 1
Answer: C
Explanation:
1. Procedure and CPTCode Selection:
The emergency department physician placed an indwelling catheter into the lumbar region for continuous infusion for pain management with fluoroscopic guidance.
CPTCode 62327 is appropriate for injection or catheter placement for continuous infusion of anesthetic or analgesic in the lumbar or sacral region using imaging guidance.
CPTCode 77003 represents the fluoroscopic guidance used during the catheter placement, which is separately reportable in this case.
2. Rationale for Excluding Other Options:
Code 62326 (in options B and D) is for the injection or catheter placement without imaging guidance. Since fluoroscopic guidance was specifically mentioned, 62327 is the appropriate choice.
Code 77003 must be reported separately when fluoroscopy is used in conjunction with 62327 for pain management catheter placement.
3. AAPC and CPTCoding Guidelines:
According to AAPC guidelines, the combination of 62327 and 77003 is correct when catheter placement for continuous infusion is performed with fluoroscopic guidance.
Therefore, the correct answer is C. 62327, 77003.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A 65-year-old gentleman presents for refill of medications and follow-up for his chronic conditions. The patient indicates good medicine compliance. No new symptoms or complaints.
Appropriate history and exam are obtained. Labs that were ordered from previous visit were reviewed and discussed with patient. The following are the diagnoses and treatment:
Hypokalemia - stable. Refill Potassium 20 MEQ
Hypertension - blood pressure remaining stable. Patient states home readings have been in line with goals. Refill prescription Lisinopril.
Esophageal Reflux - Patient denies any new symptoms. Stable condition. Continue taking over the counter Prevacid oral capsules, 1 every day.
Patient is instructed to follow up in 3 months. Labs will be obtained prior to visit.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 122
The human shoulder is made of which three bones?
- A. Metatarsal, tibia, navicular
- B. Olecranon, radius, ulna
- C. Carpal, radius, humerus
- D. Clavicle, scapula, humerus
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 123
A 49-year-old patient arrives with hearing loss in his left ear. Impedance testing via tympanometry is performed.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 124
The Medicare program has multiple parts covering different services. Which part provides coverage for outpatient physician charges?
- A. Part D
- B. Part A
- C. Part C
- D. Part B
Answer: D
Explanation:
Medicare Part B provides coverage for outpatient services, including physician services, preventive care, outpatient procedures, diagnostic tests, and durable medical equipment. Part B is a key component of Medicare, covering medically necessary services and some preventive services.
A: Part C (Medicare Advantage) includes all benefits and services covered under Parts A and B and often additional services, but it is provided through private insurance companies.
C: Part A covers inpatient hospital care, skilled nursing facility care, hospice, and some home health services.
D: Part D provides coverage for prescription drugs.
Therefore, the correct answer is B. Part B.
NEW QUESTION # 125
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