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NEW QUESTION # 52
A test manager decided to skip static testing since he believes bugs can be found easily by doing dynamic testing. Was this decision right or wrong?
- A. The decision was wrong. Ensuring quality mandates that static testing is performed after performing the dynamic testing.
- B. The decision was right. Static testing is usually redundant if a product is planned to go through a full-cycle of dynamic testing.
- C. The decision was wrong. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, reducing the overall cost of testing and development
- D. The decision was right. Most of the bugs are easier to identify during the dynamic testing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Static testing is a form of testing that does not involve executing the software or system under test. It includes activities such as reviews, inspections, walkthroughs, and analysis of documents, code, and models. Static testing can find defects early in the development process, before they become more expensive and difficult to fix in later stages. Static testing can also improve the quality of the software or system by preventing defects from being introduced in the first place. Static testing can complement dynamic testing, which involves executing the software or system under test and checking the results against expected outcomes. Dynamic testing can find defects that static testing may miss, such as performance, usability, or integration issues. However, dynamic testing alone is not sufficient to ensure quality, as it may not cover all possible scenarios, inputs, or paths. Therefore, a test manager who decides to skip static testing is making a wrong decision, as he or she is ignoring the benefits of static testing and relying solely on dynamic testing, which may not be effective or efficient enough to find and prevent defects. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.1.1, page 14; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, page 36; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 3, page 9.
NEW QUESTION # 53
The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:
1. Component (unit) testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?
- A. It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality
- B. It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model
- C. It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test
- D. It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The V-model is a software development life cycle model that defines four test levels that correspond to four development phases: component (unit) testing with component design, integration testing with architectural design, system testing with system requirements, and acceptance testing with user requirements. The V-model emphasizes the importance of verifying and validating each phase of development with a corresponding level of testing, and ensuring that the test objectives, test basis, and test artifacts are aligned and consistent across the test levels. Therefore, an organization that wants to follow the V-model cannot do away with integration testing, as it would break the symmetry and completeness of the V-model, and compromise the quality and reliability of the software or system under test. Integration testing is a test level that aims to test the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and to detect any defects or inconsistencies that may arise from the integration of different parts of the software or system. Integration testing is essential for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole, and for identifying and resolving any integration issues early in the development process. Skipping integration testing would increase the risk of finding serious defects later in the test process, or worse, in the production environment, which would be more costly and difficult to fix, and could damage the reputation and credibility of the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
The other options are incorrect because:
A . It is not allowed as organizations can decide on the test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test. While it is true that the choice and scope of test levels may vary depending on the context of the system under test, such as the size, complexity, criticality, and risk level of the system, the organization cannot simply ignore or skip a test level that is defined and required by the chosen software development life cycle model. The organization must follow the principles and guidelines of the software development life cycle model, and ensure that the test levels are consistent and coherent with the development phases. If the organization wants to have more flexibility and adaptability in choosing the test levels, it should consider using a different software development life cycle model, such as an agile or iterative model, that allows for more dynamic and incremental testing approaches.
B . It is not allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with. This statement is false and misleading, as integration testing is a very important test level that cannot be dispensed with. Integration testing is vital for testing the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole. Integration testing can reveal defects or inconsistencies that may not be detected by component (unit) testing alone, such as interface errors, data flow errors, integration logic errors, or performance degradation. Integration testing can also help to verify and validate the architectural design and the integration strategy of the software or system, and to ensure that the software or system meets the specified and expected quality attributes, such as reliability, usability, security, and maintainability. Integration testing can also provide feedback and confidence to the developers and stakeholders about the progress and quality of the software or system development. Therefore, integration testing is a crucial and indispensable test level that should not be skipped or omitted.
C . It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite poor product quality. This statement is partially true, as integration testing is a very important test level that should not be ignored, and skipping it could result in poor product quality. However, this statement is too strong and absolute, as it implies that integration testing is the only factor that determines the product quality, and that ignoring it would guarantee a poor product quality. This is not necessarily the case, as there may be other factors that affect the product quality, such as the quality of the requirements, design, code, and other test levels, the effectiveness and efficiency of the test techniques and tools, the competence and experience of the developers and testers, the availability and adequacy of the resources and environment, the management and communication of the project, and the expectations and satisfaction of the customers and users. Therefore, while integration testing is a very important test level that should not be skipped, it is not the only test level that matters, and skipping it does not necessarily mean definite poor product quality, but rather a higher risk and likelihood of poor product quality.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.3, pages 16-18; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 38-39; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 104, page 36.
NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?
- A. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised
- B. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised
- C. Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage
- D. The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage
Answer: C
Explanation:
Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all branches in the control flow of the code are executed at least once by the test cases. A branch is a basic block of code that has a single entry point and a single exit point, and a decision is a point in the code where the control flow can take more than one direction, such as an if-then-else statement, a switch-case statement, a loop statement, etc. The decision outcomes are the possible paths that can be taken from a decision, such as the then branch or the else branch, the case branch or the default branch, the loop body or the loop exit, etc. The other statements are false, because:
The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually higher than that needed to achieve full statement coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all executable statements in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. This is because branch coverage is a stronger criterion than statement coverage, as it implies statement coverage, but not vice versa. For example, a single test case can achieve full statement coverage for an if-then-else statement, but two test cases are needed to achieve full branch coverage, as both the then branch and the else branch need to be exercised.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have not necessarily been exercised, as unconditional branches are branches that do not depend on any decision, and are always executed, such as a goto statement, a break statement, a return statement, etc. Unconditional branches are not part of the branch coverage criterion, as they do not represent different paths in the control flow of the code. However, they are part of the statement coverage criterion, as they are executable statements in the code.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have not necessarily been exercised, as a decision table is a test design technique that represents the logical relationships between multiple conditions and their corresponding actions, in a tabular format. A decision table can have more combinations of conditions than the number of decision outcomes in the code, as each condition can have two or more possible values, such as true or false, yes or no, etc. For example, a decision table with four conditions can have 16 combinations of conditions, but the corresponding code may have only two decision outcomes, such as pass or fail. To exercise all combinations of conditions in a decision table, a stronger test coverage criterion is needed, such as condition combination coverage, which requires that all possible combinations of condition outcomes in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.3.1, Test Coverage Criteria Based on the Structure of the Software ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Branch Coverage, Statement Coverage, Branch, Decision, Decision Outcome, Unconditional Branch, Decision Table, Condition Combination Coverage
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- A. Looking for defects in a system may require Ignoring system details
- B. Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity
- C. Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product
- D. Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity
Answer: A
Explanation:
Looking for defects in a system does not require ignoring system details, but rather paying attention to them and understanding how they affect the system's quality, functionality, and usability. Ignoring system details could lead to missing important defects or testing irrelevant aspects of the system.
Identifying defects may be perceived as criticism against product, especially by the developers or stakeholders who are invested in the product's success. However, identifying defects is not meant to be a personal attack, but rather a constructive feedback that helps to improve the product and ensure its alignment with the requirements and expectations of the users and clients.
Looking for defects in system requires professional pessimism and curiosity, as testers need to anticipate and explore the possible ways that the system could fail, malfunction, or behave unexpectedly. Professional pessimism means being skeptical and critical of the system's quality and reliability, while curiosity means being eager and interested in finding out the root causes and consequences of the defects.
Testing is often seen as a destructive activity instead of constructive activity, as it involves finding and reporting the flaws and weaknesses of the system, rather than creating or enhancing it. However, testing is actually a constructive activity, as it contributes to the system's improvement, verification, validation, and optimization, and ultimately to the delivery of a high-quality product that meets the needs and expectations of the users and clients.
NEW QUESTION # 56
A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.
Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?
- A. Branch Coverage
- B. Statement coverage
- C. Data flow coverage
- D. Code coverage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Branch coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of branches or decision outcomes that are executed by the test cases. A branch is a point in the code where the control flow can take two or more alternative paths based on a condition. For example, an if-else statement is a branch that can execute either the if-block or the else-block depending on the evaluation of the condition. Branch coverage ensures that each branch is taken at least once by the test cases, and thus reveals the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Branch coverage is also known as decision coverage or all-edges coverage.
Branch coverage is suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed, because it can verify that the test cases cover all the possible outcomes of the conditions that determine the action. For example, if the program has a condition that checks if the manufacturing stage can be stopped, then branch coverage can ensure that the test cases cover both the cases where the stage can be stopped and where it cannot be stopped. This way, branch coverage can help identify any missing or incorrect branches that may lead to undesired or unsafe actions.
The other options are not correct because they are not suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed. Code coverage is a general term that encompasses various types of coverage metrics, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, data flow coverage, etc. Code coverage does not specify which type of coverage metric is used for the analysis. Data flow coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of data flow paths that are executed by the test cases. A data flow path is a sequence of statements that define, use, or kill a variable. Data flow coverage is useful for testing the correctness and completeness of the data manipulation in the software, but not for testing the conditions that determine the actions. Statement coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of statements or lines of code that are executed by the test cases. Statement coverage ensures that each statement is executed at least once by the test cases, but it does not reveal the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Statement coverage is a weaker criterion than branch coverage, because it does not account for the branches or decision outcomes in the code. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following statements best describes the way in which decision coverage is measured?
- A. Measured as the number of lines of code executed by the tests, divided by the total number of lines of code in the test object.
- B. Measured as the number of statements executed by the tests, divided by the total number of executable statements in the code.
- C. Measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests, divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object.
- D. It is not possible to accurately measure decision coverage.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Decision coverage, also known as branch coverage, is measured as the number of decision outcomes executed by the tests divided by the total number of decision outcomes in the test object. It ensures that every possible branch (true/false) decision in the code has been executed at least once.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 4.3.2
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?
- A. A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment
- B. A test leader writes a test summary report
- C. A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort
- D. A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release
Answer: D
Explanation:
The question is about identifying an example of testing contributing to higher quality. Quality is the degree to which a component, system or process meets specified requirements and/or user/customer needs and expectations1. Testing is the process consisting of all lifecycle activities, both static and dynamic, concerned with planning, preparation and evaluation of software products and related work products to determine that they satisfy specified requirements, to demonstrate that they are fit for purpose and to detect defects2.
Therefore, testing contributes to higher quality by verifying and validating that the software products and related work products meet the specified requirements, are fit for purpose and have no defects, or at least have a reduced number of defects. Testing also provides information about the quality of the software products and related work products to the stakeholders, who can make informed decisions based on the test results3.
Out of the four given statements, only option D is an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it shows that testing has detected a defect (a flaw in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function4) and that the defect has been resolved (fixed and confirmed) prior to release (delivery of the software product to the customer or end user). This means that testing has prevented a potential failure (an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits) from occurring in the operational environment, and thus has improved the quality of the software product.
Option A is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a reporting activity that summarizes the test results and evaluates the test objectives, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test summary report is a document that records and communicates the outcomes of testing activities, including test completion criteria, test results, incident reports, test summary and evaluation, and lessons learned.
Option B is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a planning activity that estimates the resources and time needed for testing activities, but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test effort estimate is an approximation of the amount of work and/or the duration of time required to perform testing activities.
Option C is not an example of testing contributing to higher quality, as it is a preparation activity that sets up the test environment (an environment containing hardware, instrumentation, simulators, software tools, and other support elements needed to conduct a test), but does not directly affect the quality of the software product or related work products. A test environment installation is a process of installing and configuring the test environment according to the test environment specification.
Reference:
1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 10
2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 11
3: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 12
4: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
5: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 13
6: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 77
7: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 78
8: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 79
9: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 80
10: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 81
11: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82
12: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83
13: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84
14: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85
15: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 86
16: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 87
17: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 88
18: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 89
19: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 90
20: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 91
21: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 92
22: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 93
23: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 94
24: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 95
25: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 96
26: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 97
27: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 98
28: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 99
29: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 100
30: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 101
31: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 102
32: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 103
33: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 104
34: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 105
35: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 106
36: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 107
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following work products cannot be examined by static analysis?
- A. Compiled code
- B. Source code
- C. Formal models
- D. Test plans
Answer: D
Explanation:
Static analysis is the process of examining the work products of a software development or testing activity without executing them. Static analysis can be applied to various types of work products, such as requirements, design, code, test cases, etc. However, test plans are not suitable for static analysis, because they are high-level documents that describe the test objectives, scope, strategy, resources, schedule, and risks of a testing project. Test plans are not executable or formalized in a way that static analysis tools can analyze them. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following statements refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model?
- A. Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level
- B. Involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle
- C. Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding
- D. Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement that refers to good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model is option D, which says that involvement of testers in work product reviews should occur as early as possible to take advantage of the early testing principle. Work product reviews are static testing techniques, in which the work products of the software development process, such as the requirements, the design, the code, the test cases, etc., are examined by one or more reviewers, with or without the author, to identify defects, violations, or improvements. Involvement of testers in work product reviews can provide various benefits for the testing process, such as improving the test quality, the test efficiency, and the test communication. The early testing principle states that testing activities should start as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, and should be performed iteratively and continuously throughout the lifecycle. Applying the early testing principle can help to prevent, detect, and remove defects at an early stage, when they are easier, cheaper, and faster to fix, as well as to reduce the risk, the cost, and the time of the testing process. The other options are not good testing practices to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model, but rather specific testing practices that may or may not be applicable or beneficial for testing, depending on the context and the objectives of the testing activities, such as:
Tests should be written in executable format before the code is written and should act as executable specifications that drive coding: This is a specific testing practice that is associated with test-driven development, which is an approach to software development and testing, in which the developers write automated unit tests before writing the source code, and then refactor the code until the tests pass. Test-driven development can help to improve the quality, the design, and the maintainability of the code, as well as to provide fast feedback and guidance for the developers. However, test-driven development is not a good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model, as it may not be feasible, suitable, or effective for testing in some contexts or situations, such as when the requirements are unclear, unstable, or complex, when the test automation tools or skills are not available or adequate, when the testing objectives or levels are not aligned with the unit testing, etc.
Test levels should be defined such that the exit criteria of one level are part of the entry criteria for the next level: This is a specific testing practice that is associated with sequential software development models, such as the waterfall model, the V-model, or the W-model, in which the software development and testing activities are performed in a linear and sequential order, with well-defined phases, deliverables, and dependencies. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Test levels should have clear and measurable entry criteria and exit criteria, which are the conditions that must be met before starting or finishing a test level. In sequential software development models, the exit criteria of one test level are usually part of the entry criteria for the next test level, to ensure that the software system is ready and stable for the next level of testing. However, this is not a good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model, as it may not be relevant, flexible, or efficient for testing in some contexts or situations, such as when the software development and testing activities are performed in an iterative and incremental order, with frequent changes, feedback, and adaptations, as in agile software development models, such as Scrum, Kanban, or XP, when the test levels are not clearly defined or distinguished, or when the test levels are performed in parallel or concurrently, etc.
Test objectives should be the same for all test levels, although the number of tests designed at various levels can vary significantly: This is a specific testing practice that is associated with uniform software development models, such as the spiral model, the incremental model, or the prototyping model, in which the software development and testing activities are performed in a cyclical and repetitive manner, with similar phases, deliverables, and processes. Test objectives are the goals or the purposes of testing, which can vary depending on the test level, the test type, the test technique, the test environment, the test stakeholder, etc. Test objectives can be defined in terms of the test basis, the test coverage, the test quality, the test risk, the test cost, the test time, etc. Test objectives should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound, and they should be aligned with the project objectives and the quality characteristics. In uniform software development models, the test objectives may be the same for all test levels, as the testing process is repeated for each cycle or iteration, with similar focus, scope, and perspective of testing. However, this is not a good testing practice to be applied regardless of the chosen software development model, as it may not be appropriate, realistic, or effective for testing in some contexts or situations, such as when the software development and testing activities are performed in a hierarchical and modular manner, with different phases, deliverables, and dependencies, as in sequential software development models, such as the waterfall model, the V-model, or the W-model, when the test objectives vary according to the test levels, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing, or when the test objectives change according to the feedback, the learning, or the adaptation of the testing process, as in agile software development models, such as Scrum, Kanban, or XP, etc. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.1, Testing and the Software Development Lifecycle1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and Test Approaches1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.4, Test Implementation1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.5, Test Execution1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, Test Closure1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Work Product Review, Static Testing, Early Testing, Test-driven Development, Test Level, Entry Criterion, Exit Criterion, Test Objective, Test Basis, Test Coverage, Test Quality, Test Risk, Test Cost, Test Time2
NEW QUESTION # 61
A calculator software is used to calculate the result for 5+6.
The user noticed that the result given is 6.
This is an example of;
- A. Error
- B. Failure
- C. Fault
- D. Mistake
Answer: B
Explanation:
According to the ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, page 18, a failure is "an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits". In this case, the calculator software does not perform the required function of calculating the correct result for 5+6 within the specified limits of accuracy and precision. Therefore, this is an example of a failure.
The other options are incorrect because:
A mistake is "a human action that produces an incorrect result" (page 25). A mistake is not an event, but an action, and it may or may not lead to a failure. For example, a mistake could be a typo in the code, a wrong assumption in the design, or a misunderstanding of the requirement.
A fault is "a defect in a component or system that can cause the component or system to fail to perform its required function" (page 16). A fault is not an event, but a defect, and it may or may not cause a failure. For example, a fault could be a logical error in the code, a missing specification in the design, or a contradiction in the requirement.
An error is "the difference between a computed, observed, or measured value or condition and the true, specified, or theoretically correct value or condition" (page 15). An error is not an event, but a difference, and it may or may not result in a failure. For example, an error could be a rounding error in the calculation, a measurement error in the observation, or a deviation error in the condition.
Reference = ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 15-18, 25; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 96, page 34.
NEW QUESTION # 62
You are performing the role of tester on an Agile project. Which of the following tasks would be your responsibility?
i. Understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy.
II . Ensuring the proper use of testing tools.
Hi. Coaching other team members in the relevant aspects of testing.
iv . Actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness.
v. Participating proactively in team retrospective meeting, suggesting and implementing improvements.
Select the correct answer:
- A. i, ii and iii
- B. iii . iv and v
- C. i, iv and v
- D. i, iii and v
Answer: C
Explanation:
In an Agile project, a tester's responsibilities include understanding, implementing, and updating the test strategy (i), actively collaborating with developers and business stakeholders to clarify requirements, especially in terms of testability, consistency, and completeness (iv), and participating proactively in team retrospective meetings, suggesting and implementing improvements (v). These activities ensure that testing is integrated into the development process, promoting continuous feedback and improvement. The ISTQB CTFL syllabus underlines the collaborative nature of Agile testing and the tester's role in contributing to the team's overall quality goals.
NEW QUESTION # 63
In Agile teams, testers closely collaborate with all other team members. This close collaboration could be problematic and result in testing-related organizational risks.
Which TWO of the following organization risks could be encountered?
I . Testers lose motivation and fail at their core tasks.
ii . Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset.
iii . Testers are not able to keep pace with incoming changes in time-constrained iterations.
iv . Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.
- A. i and iii
- B. i and ii
- C. ii and iv
- D. ii and iii
Answer: C
Explanation:
In Agile teams, close collaboration among testers and other team members can lead to organizational risks such as: ii . Close interaction with developers causes a loss of the appropriate tester mindset. iv . Testers, once they have acquired technical development or business skills, leave the testing team.
These risks highlight the potential issues of diminished testing perspective and team turnover when testers integrate closely with developers and other roles.
NEW QUESTION # 64
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€
- B. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€
- C. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€
- D. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€
Answer: A
Explanation:
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?
- A. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
- B. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it
- C. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment
- D. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3
NEW QUESTION # 66
Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.
Which of the following examples demonstrates this?
- A. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.
- B. Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.
- C. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.
- D. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Testing Quadrants model helps Agile teams by categorizing different types of tests and their purposes. This differentiation helps test managers explain the testing strategy to all stakeholders, ensuring everyone understands the scope and objectives of each test type. This model aids in planning, executing, and tracking testing activities across different quadrants, making it easier to align with stakeholders' expectations and project goals. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1.7
NEW QUESTION # 67
During iteration planning, a scrum team uses an estimation technique called planning poker to estimate the effort required to deliver a critical user story. In advance of the estimation session, the team agreed on some ground rules to limit the number of poker rounds and save time.
The team agreed on the following:
1. They will use the following progression for estimation: Extra-small, Small, Medium, Large, Extra-large, and Extra-extra-large.
2. If estimation values differ significantly, the highest score will be used for estimation purposes.
The result of the first round of planning poker:
Team Member Estimation
Business Large
Development Extra-extra-large
Testing Extra-extra-large
Which of the following options best represent the team's next actions?
- A. Since the business representative is likely to have the most informed view of the requirement, the user story is categorised as a Large.
- B. The pre-agreed rules state that the highest score should be used for estimation, resulting in the user story being categorised as Extra-extra-large.
- C. The fact that all estimations are high indicate that the user story is not well understood or should be broken down into multiple smaller stories.
- D. the team discusses the differences in the estimates and repeats the poker round until an agreemet is reached.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a planning poker session, if there is a significant difference in the estimations, it indicates that there may be misunderstandings or different perspectives on the complexity of the user story. According to the agile principles, the team should discuss these differences to reach a common understanding. The goal is to ensure that all team members have a shared understanding of the user story's scope and complexity before finalizing the estimate.
NEW QUESTION # 68
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